Lord of the Rings

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Lord of the Rings Question

How exactly did Saruman manage to corrupt Kind Theoden of Rohan?

In the movies it only shows that Saruman was the cause for the corruption, but it also showed that when Theoden was speaking and active, Saruman was very focussed on that, but how could he remain the entire time focussed on that, when it shows that he clearly isn't always. Did I miss something(most likely) or was it an editing error (less likely)?
 CCGSDI posted over a year ago
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Lord of the Rings Answers

delamico said:
Hypnosis, drugs, magic...?
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posted over a year ago 
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Myyyyyy Brother. Thanks 4 helping me out nice ways
LACHLANISRAD posted over a year ago
Deansgal1979 said:
Saruman sent his servant to do the dirty work. Saruman may have had the idea to corrupt the king, but the work was really that really creepy dude that was kicked out of Rohan when the king came to his senses.
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posted over a year ago 
Book-Freak said:
I think that over a long period of time, Saruman appeared to be a friend to Rohan and he gained the trust of the Rohirrim. Then we started to slowly influence the king with his magic, but so slowly that it wasn't noticed until the damage was fully done.
Wormtongue was there to keep Saruman's influence over the king, and be his eyes and ears in the city.
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posted over a year ago 
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